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SBI PO 2013 Previous Year Question Paper
Below is SBI PO 2013 Previous Year Question Paper.
SBI PO 2013 Previous Year Question Paper:Section wise Questions
Test – I: Reasoning Ability
1. Which of the following expressions will be true, if the expression R > O = A > S < T is definitely true?
- O > T
- S < R
- T > A
- S = O
- T < R
2. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘P > A’ as well as ‘T < L’ definitely true?
P > L ? A ≥ N = T
- Either ≤ or <
3. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expressions ‘B > N’ as well as ‘D ≤ L’ definitely true?
B __ L __ O __ N __ D
- =, =, ≥, ≥
- >, ≥, =, >
- >, <, =, ≤
- >, =, =, ≥
- >, =, ≥, >
4. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘A < P’ definitely false?
__ ≤ __ < __ > __
- L, N, P, A
- L, A, P, N
- A, L, P, N
- N, A, P, L
- P, N, A, L
5. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression ‘F > N’ and ‘U > D’ definitely false?
F __ O __ U __ N __ D
- <, <, >, =
- <, =, =, >
- <, =, =, <
- ≥, =, =, ≥
- >, >, =, <
(Directions: Q. Nos. 6 to 10): Study the following information and answer the following questions.
A, B, C, D, E, G and I are seven friends who study in three different standards namely 5th, 6th and 7th such that not less than two friends study in the same standard. Each friend also has a different favourite subject namely History, Civics, English, Marathi, Hindi, Maths and Economics but not necessarily in the same order.
A likes Maths and studies in the 5th standard with only one other friend who likes Marathi. I studies with two other friends. Both the other friends who study with I like languages (Here, languages include only Hindi, Marathi and English).
D studies in the 6th standard with only one person and does not like Civics. E studies with only one friend. The one who likes history does not study in 5th or 6th standard. E does not like languages. C does not like English, Hindi or Civics.
6. Which combination represents E’s favourite subject and the standard in which he studies?
- Civics and 7th
- Economics and 5th
- Civics and 6th
- History and 7th
- Economics and 7th
7. Which of the following is I’s favourite subject?
- Either English or Marathi
- Either English or Hindi
8. Who amongst the following studies in the 7th standard?
- Either D or B
9. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?
- I and Hindi
- G and English
- C and Marathi
- B and Hindi
- E and Economics
10. Which of the following subjects does G like?
- Either Maths or Marathi
- Either Hindi or English
- Either Hindi or Civics
- Either Hindi or Marathi
- Either Civics or Economics
(Directions: Q. Nos. 11 to 15): Study the following information and answer the following questions.
In a certain code language.
‘economics is not money’ is written as ‘ka la ho ga’
‘demand and supply economies’ is written as ‘mo ta pa ka’
‘money makes only part’ is written as ‘zi la ne ki’
‘demand make supply economics’ is written as ‘zi mo ka ta’
11. What is the code for ‘money’ in the given code language?
12. What is the code for ‘supply’ in the given code language?
- Only ta
- Only mo
- Either pa or mo
- Only pa
- Either mo or ta
13. What may be the possible code for ‘demand only more’ in the given code language?
- xi ne mo
- mo zi ne
- ki ne mo
- mo zi ki
- xi ka ta
14. What may be the possible code for ‘work and money’ in the given code language?
- pa ga la
- pa la lu
- mo la pa
- tu la ga
- pa la ne
15. What is code for ‘makes’ in the given code language?
(Directions: Q. Nos. 16 to 20): Study the following information and answer the following questions.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular role. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input: 40 made butter 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now 19
Step I: butter 19 40 made 23 37 cookies salt extra 52 86 92 fell now
Step II: Cookies 23 butter 19 40 made 37 salt extra 52 86 92 fell now
Step III: extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 40 made salt 52 86 92 fell now
Step IV: fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 made salt 52 86 92 now
Step V: made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 salt 86 92 now
Step VI: now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter salt 92
Step VII: salt 92 now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19
Step VIII: is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 32 proud girl beautiful 48 55 97 rich family 61 72 17 nice life
16. How many steps will be required to complete the given input?
17. Which of the following is the third element from the left end of step VI?
18. Which of the following is step III of the given input?
- proud 72 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 55 97 rich 61 nice life
- life 55 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice
- girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life
- family 32 beautiful 17 proud girl 48 55 97 rich 61 72 nice life
- girl 48 life 55 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 97 rich 61 72 nice
19. What is the position of ‘nice’ from the left end in the final step?
20. Which element is third to the right of ‘family’ in Step V?
(Directions: Q. Nos. 21 to 25): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions.
If A = B means A is the father of B.
If A × B means A is the sister of B.
If A $ B means A is the wife of B.
If A % B means A is the mother of B.
If A ÷ B means A is the son of B.
21. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that J is the brother of T in the expression?
J ÷ P % H ? T % L
- Either ÷ or ×
- Either + or ÷
22. Which among the given expressions indicate that M is the daughter of D?
- L % R $ D + T × M
- L + R $ D + M × T
- L % R % D + T ÷ M
- D + L $ R + M × T
- L $ D ÷ R % M ÷ T
23. Which among the following options is true, if the expression ‘I + T % J × L ÷ K’ is definitely true?
- L is the daughter of T
- K is the son-in-law of I
- I is the grandmother of L
- T is the father of J
- J is the brother of L
24. Which among the following expressions is true, if Y is the son of X is definitely false?
- W % L × T × Y ÷ X
- W + L × T × Y ÷ X
- X + L × T × Y ÷ W
- W $ X + L + Y + T
- W % X + T × Y ÷ L
25. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that T is the sister-in-law of Q in the expression?
R % T × P ? Q + V
- Either $ of ×
(Directions: Q. Nos. 26 to 30): Study the following information and answer the following questions.
Eight people E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is of a different profession Chartered Accountant, Columnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. The Scientist is an immediate neighbor of K. There are only three people between the Scientist and E. Only one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Columnist is to the immediate right of the Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither G nor J is an Engineer. The Financial Analyst is to immediate left of F. The Lawyer is second to the right of the Columnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbour of the Engineer. G is second to the right of the Chartered Accountant.
26. Who is sitting second to the right of E?
- The Lawyer
- The Engineer
27. Who amongst the following is the Professor?
28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence from a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
- Chartered Accountant – H
- M – Doctor
- J – Engineer
- Financial Analyst – L
- Lawyer – K
29. What is the position of L with respect to the scientist?
- Third to the left
- Second to the left
- Second to the left
- Third to the left
- Immediate right
30. Which of the following statements is true according to the given arrangement?
- The Lawyer is second to the left of the Doctor
- E is an immediate neighbour of the Financial Analyst
- H sits exactly between F and the Financial Analyst
- Only four people sit between the Columnist and F
- All of the given statements are true
(Directions: Q. Nos. 31 to 35): In each of the questions below, two/three statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume o all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from, the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.
(1) if only Conclusion I follows
(2) if only Conclusion II follows
(3) if either I or II follows
(4) if neither I nor II follows
(5) if both I and II follow
(Directions: Q. Nos. 31 to 32): Study the following statements and answer the questions given below.
Statement: Some squares are circles. No circle is a triangle. No line is a square.
I. All squares can never be triangles.
II. Some lines are circles.
I. No triangles is a square.
II. No line is a circle.
(Directions: Q. Nos. 33 to 34): Study the following statement and answer the questions given below.
Statement: All songs are poems. All poems are rhymes. No rhyme is a paragraph.
I. No song is a paragraph.
II. No poem is a paragraph.
I. All rhymes are poems.
II. All songs are rhymes.
35. Statements: Some dews are drops. All drops are stones.
I. At least some dews are stones.
II. At least some stones are drops.
(Directions: Q. Nos. 36 to 38): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether two data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions, Read both the statements.
(1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(3) if the data either in Statement I alone or Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(4) if the data neither in Statement I nor Statement II together are sufficient to answer the question
(5) if the data either in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
36. Seventeen people are standing second in a straight line facing south. What is Bhavana’s position from the left end of the line?
I. Sandeep is standing second to the left of Sheetal. Only five people stand between Sheetal and the one who is standing at the extreme right end of the line. Four people stand between Sandeep and Bhavana.
II. Anita is standing fourth to the left of Sheetal. Less than three people standing between Bhavana and Anita.
37. Five letters A, E, G, N and R are arranged left to right according to certain conditions. Which letter is placed third?
I. G is placed second to the right of A. E is to the immediate right of G. There are only two letters between R and G.
II. N is exactly between A and G, Neither A nor G is at the extreme end of the arrangement.
38. Six peoples S, T, U, V, W and x are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. What is T’s position with respect to X?
I. Only two peoples sit between U and W. X is second to the left of W. V and T are immediate neighbours of each other.
II. T is to the immediate right of V. There are only two people between T and S. X is an immediate nieghbour of S but not of V.
(Directions: Q. Nos. 39 to 40): Read the following information and answer the given questions.
39. Which of the following can be a strong argument in favour of retail store owners?
- Online shopping portals offer a great deal of discounts which retail stores offer only during the sake season
- One can compare a variety of products online which cannot be done at retail stores
- Many online shopping portals offer the ‘cash on delivery’ feature which is for those who are sceptical about online payments
- Many consumers prefer shopping at retail stores which are nearer to their houses
- In online shopping the customer maybe deceived as he cannot touch the product he is paying for.
40. Which of the following can be Inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)
- One can shop online only at night
- Those who are not comfortable using computers can never enjoy the experience of online shopping
- All retail stores provide shopping assistants to each and every customer
- The consumer whose view is presented has shopped at retail stores as well as online
- The consumer whose view is presented does not have any retail stores in her vicnity
(Directions: Q. Nos. 41): Read the following information and answer the given questions.
many manufacturing companies are now shifting base to the rural areas of the country as there is a scarcity of space in urban areas. Analysts say that this shift will not have a huge impact on the prices of the products manufactured by these companies as only about 30% consumers live in urban areas.
41. Which of the following may be a consequence of the given information?
- The prices of such products will decrease drastically in the urban areas
- People living in urban areas will not be allowed to work in such manufacturing companies
- These manufacturing companies had set-ups in the urban areas before shifting base
- Those who had already migrated to the urban areas will not shift back to rural areas
- The number of people migrating from rural to urban areas in search of jobs may reduce
(Directions: Q. Nos. 42): Read the following information and answer the given questions.
‘pets are not allowed in the park premises’ A notice put up at the park entrance by the authority that is responsible for maintenance of the park.
42. Which of the following can be an assumption accord- ing to the given information? (An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)
- At least some people who visit the park have pets
- This is the only park which does not allow pets
- People who ignored this notice were fined
- There are more than one entrances to the park
- Many people have now stopped visiting the park
(Directions: Q. Nos. 43 to 45): Read the following information and answer the given questions.
Despite repeated announcements that mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall, three students were caught with their mobile phones.
(A) Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features and it is easy to cheat with their help.(B) The invigilator must immediately confiscate the mobile phones and ask the students to leave the exam hall immediately.
(C) Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving them in bags outside the exam hall is not safe.
(D) There have been incidents where students who left the exam hall early stole the mobile phones kept in the bags of the students who were writing the exam.
(E) The school authorities must ask the students to leave their phones in the custody of the invigilator before the exam in order to avoid thefts of mobile phones.
(F) None of the other students were carrying their phones in the exam hall.
43. Which of the following among A, B, C and D may be a strong argument in favour of the three students who were caught with the mobile phone?
- Only A
- A and B
- C and D
- Only C
- B and D
44. Which of the following among A, B, E and F may be the reason behind the school making such announcements before the exam?
- Only B
- D and E
- Only F
- Only A
- E and F
45. Which of the following among A, b, D and F can be an immediate course of action for the invigilator?
- Only B
- A and D
- Only A
- D and F
- Only F
(Directions: Q. Nos. 46 to 50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figure if the sequence were continued?
46. Question Figures
47. Question Figures
48. Question Figures
49. Question Figures
50. Question Figures
Test-II: Data Analysis & Interpretation
Directions (Q. 51-55): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
In which city is the difference between the cost of 1 kg of apple and the cost of
one kg of guava the second lowest?
1) Jalandhar 2) Delhi 3) Chandigarh
4) Hoshiarpur 5) Ropar
52. The cost of 1 kg of guava in Jalandhar is approximately What per cent of the
cost of 2 kg of grapes in Chandigarh?
1) 66 2) 24 3) 28
4) 34 5) 58
53. What total amount will Ram pay to the Shopkeeper for purchasing 3 kg of
apples and 2 Kg. of guavas in Delhi?
1) `530 2) `450 3) `570
4) `620 5) `490
54. Ravinder had to purchase 45 kg of grapes from Hoshiarpur. The Shopkeeper
gave him a discount of 4% per kg. What amount did he pay to the Shopkeeper
after the discount?
1) `8208 2) `8104 3) `8340
4) `8550 5) `8410
55. What is the ratio of the cost of 1kg of apples from Ropar to the cost of 1kg. of
grapes from Chandigarh?
1) 3 : 2 2) 2 : 3 3) 22 : 32
4) 42 : 92 5) 92 : 42
Directions (Q. 56-60): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow:Number of students (in thousand) in two diffrent universities in six different years
56. What was the difference between the number of students in University-1 in the
year 2010 and the number of students in University-2 in the year 2012?
1) Zero 2) 5,000 3) 15,000
4) 10,000 5) 1,000
57. What is the sum of the number of students in University-1 in the year 2007 and
the number of students in University-2 in the year 2011 together?
1) 50,000 2) 55,000 3) 45,000
4) 57,000 5) 40,000
58. If 25% of the students in univeristy-2 in the year 2010 were females, what was
the number of male students in University-2 in the same year?
1) 11,250 2) 12,350 3) 12,500
4) 11,500 5) 11,750
59. What was the percent increase in the number of students in University-1 in the
year 2011 as compared to the previous year?
1) 135 2) 15 3) 115
4) 25 5) 35
60. In which year was the difference between the number of students in University-
1 and the number of students in University-2 the highest?
1) 2008 2) 2009 3) 2010
4) 2011 5) 2012
Directions (Q. 61-65): Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow.
61. What is the total number of players participating in Hockey from all the five
1) 324 2) 288 3) 342
4) 284 5) 248
62. What is the ratio of the number of players participating in Basketball from
School-1 to the number of players participating in Kho-Kho from School-3?
1) 5 : 7 2) 7 : 9 3) 7 : 8
4) 9 : 7 5) 5 : 8
63. In which school is the number of players participating in Hockey and Basketball
together the second highest?
1) School-1 2) School-2 3) School-3
4) School-4 5) School-5
64. The number of players participating in Kho-Kho from School-4 is what percent
of the number of players participating in Hockey from School-2?
1) 42 2) 48 3) 36
4) 40 5) 60
65. 25% of the number of players participating in Hockey from School-5 are
females. What is the number of the Hockey players who are males in School-5?
1) 15 2) 18 3) 30
4) 21 5) 27
Directions (Q. 66-70): Study the following bar-graph careflly and answer the following
66. What is Gita’s average earning over all the days togehter?
1) Rs. 285 2) Rs. 290 3) Rs. 320
4) Rs. 310 5) Rs. 315
67. What is the total amount earned by Rahul and Naveen together on Tuesday and
1) `1,040 2) `1,020 3) ` 980
4) `940 5) ` 860
68. Gita donated her earnings of Wednesday to Naveen. What was Naveen’s total
earning on Wednesday after Gita’s donation?
1) `520 2) `550 3) ` 540
4) `560 5) ` 620
69. What is the difference between Rahul’s earning on Monday and Gita’s earning
1) ` 40 2) ` 20 3) ` 50
4) ` 30 5) ` 10
70. What is the ratio of Naveen’s earning on Monday, Wednesday and Thursday?
1) 7 : 3 : 5 2) 8 : 6 : 5 3) 8 : 7 : 4
4) 9: 5 : 4 5) 9 : 3 : 4
Directions (Q. 71-75): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following
questions.71. What is the difference between the total number of employees in teaching and
medical profession together and the number of employees in management profession?
1) 6770 2) 7700 3) 6700
4) 7770 5) 7670
72. In management profession three fourths of the number of employees are
females. What is the number of male employees in management profession?
1) 1239 2) 1143 3) 1156
4) 1289 5) 1139
73. 25% of employees from film production profession went on a strike. What is the
number of employees from film production who did not participate in the strike?
1) 3271 2) 3819 3) 3948
4) 1273 5) 1246
74. What is the total number of employees in engineering profession and industries
1) 5698 2) 5884 3) 5687
4) 5896 5) 5487
75. In teaching profession if three – fifths of the teachers are not permenent, what is
the number of permanent teachers in the teaching profession?
1) 1608 2) 1640 3) 1764
4) 1704 5) 1686
Directions (Q: 76-80): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Monthly Bill (in Rupees) landline Phone, electricity of laundry and
mobile phone paid, by three different people in five months.
76. What is the total amount of bill paid by Dev. in the month of June for all the four
1) `608 2) `763 3) `731
4) `683 5) `674
77. What is the average electricity bill paid by Manu over all the five months
1) `183 2) `149 3) `159
4) `178 5) `164
78. What is the difference between the mobile phone bill paid by Ravi in the month
of May and the laundry bill paid by Dev in the month of March?
1) `180 2) `176 3) `190
4) `167 5) `196
79. In which months respectively did Manu pay the second highest mobile phone
bill and the lowest electricity bill?
1) April and June 2) April and May 3) March and June
4) March and May 5) July and May
80. What is the ratio of the electricity bill paid by Manu in the month of April to the
mobile phone bill paid by Ravi in the month of June?
1) 27 : 49 2) 27 : 65 3) 34 : 49
4) 135 : 184 5) 13 : 24
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions
81. What is the distance travelled by the train from Surat to Nadiad Junction?
1) 176 km 2) 188 km 3) 183 km
4) 193 km 5) 159 km
82. How much time does the train take to reach Ahmedabad after departing from
Anand Junction (including the halt time)?
1) 1 hr 59 min 2) 1 hr 17 min 3) 1 hr 47 min
4) 1 hr 45 min 5) 1 hr 15 min
83. What is the ratio of the number of passengers boarding from Vasai Road to that
from Ahmedabad in the train?
1) 21 : 17 2) 13 : 9 3) 21 : 19
4) 15 : 13 5) 13 : 15
84. If the halt time (stopping time) of the train at Vadodara is decreased by 2 minutes
and increased by 23 minutes at Ahmedabad, at what time will the train
1) 6.10 am 2) 6.01 pm 3) 6.05 am
4) 6.50 pm 5) 6.07 pm
85. The distance between which two stations is the second lowest?
1) Nadiad Jn to Ahmedabad 2) Anand Jn to Nadiad Jn
3) Dadar to Vasai Road 4) Anand Jn to Vadodara
5) Vasai Road to Surat
Directions (Q. 86-90): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow.
86. What is the difference between the maximum temperature of Ontario on 1st
November and the minimum temperature of Bhuj on 1st January?
1) 3 °C 2) 18 °C 3) 15 °C
4) 9 °C 5) 11 °C
87. In which month respectively is the maximum temperature of Kabul the second
highest and the minimum temperature of Sydney the highest?
1) 1st October and 1st January 2) 1st October and 1st November
3) 1st December and 1st January 4) 1st September and 1st January
5) 1st December and 1st September
88. In which month (on 1st day) is the difference between maximum temperature
and minimum temperature of Bhuj the second highest?
1) 1st September 2) 1st October 3) 1st November
4) 1st December 5) 1st January
89. What is the average maximum temperature of Beijing over all the months
1) 8.4 °C 2) 9.6 °C 3) 7.6 °C
4) 9.2 °C 5) 8.6 °C
90. What is the ratio of the minimum temperature of Beijing on 1st September to
the maximum temperature of Ontario on 1st October?
1) 3 : 4 2) 3 : 5 3) 4 : 5
4) 1 : 5 5) 1 : 4
Directions (Q. 91-95): Study the following pie-chart and table carefully to answer
the questions that follow:91. What is the difference between the number of diesel engine cars in State-2 and
the number of petrol engine cars in State-4?
1) 159 2) 21 3) 28
4) 34 5) 161
92. The number of petrol engine cars in State-3 is what per cent more than the number
of diesel engine cars in State-1?
1) 100 2) 200 3) 300
4) 125 5) 225
93. If 95% of diesel engine cars in State-3 are AC and the remaining cars are non-
AC, what is the number of diesel engine cars in State-3 which are non-AC?
1) 75 2) 45 3) 95
4) 105 5) 35
94. What is the difference between the total number of cars in State-3 and the number
of petrol engine cars in State-2?
1) 96 2) 106 3) 112
4) 102 5) 98
95. What is the average number of petrol engine cars in all the states together?
1) 86.75 2) 89.25 3) 89.75
4) 86.25 5)88.75
96. A bag contains 7 blue balls and 5 yellow balls. If two balls are selected at random,
what is the probability that none is yellow?
1) 53/33 2) 5/22 3) 7/22
4) 7/33 5) 7/66
97. A die is thrown twice. What is the probability of getting a sum 7 from both the throws?
1) 5/18 2) 1/18 3) 1/9
4) 1/6 5) 5/36
Directions (Q. 98-100) Study the information carefully to answer these questions.
In a team, there are 240 members (males and females). Two-thirds of them are
males. Fifteen per cent of males are graduates. Remaining males are non-graduates.
Three-fourths of the females are graduates. Remaining females are non-graduates.
98. What is the difference between the number of females who are non-graduates
and the number of males who are graduates?
1) 2 2) 24 3) 4
4) 116 5) 36
99. What is the sum of the number of females who are graduates and the number of males who are non-graduates?
1) 184 2) 96 3) 156
4) 84 5) 196
100. What is the ratio of the total number of males to the number of females who are non-graduates?
1) 6 : 1 2) 8 : 1 3) 8 : 3
4) 5 : 2 5) 7 : 2
Test-III: General Awareness, Marketing & Computers
101. Who was the Captain of Australian Cricket Team which currently (March 2013)
1) Michael Clarke 2) Shane Watson 3) Shane Warne
4) Michael Hussey 5) Ricky Ponting
102. Government, as part of the recapitalisation plan, infused capital in State Bank of
India recently. Indicate the approximate capital infusion.
1) Rs.500 Cr. 2) Rs.1,000 Cr. 3) Rs.1,500 Cr.
4) Rs.2,000 cr. 5) Rs.3,000 Cr.
103. The NRIs while investing in the equity of a company cannot buy more than a
prescribed percentage of the paid-up capital of that company. What is the prescribed
1) 2% 2) 3% 3) 4%
4) 5% 5) 6%
104. Every year March 20 is celebrated as what day?
1) World Sparrow Day 2) International Women’s Day
3) World Cuckoo Day 4) International Children’s Day
5) International Mother’s Day
105. One of the famous Indian sportspersons released his/her autobiography
‘Playing to Win’ in November 2012. Name the sportsperson correctly.
1) Saina Nehwal 2) Mary Kom 3) Yuvraj Singh
4) Sachin Tendulkar 5) Sushil Kumar
106. Which of the following terms is associated with the game of Cricket?
1) Bouncer 2) Love 3) Goal
4) Mid Court 5) Collision
107. Who is the author of the book Women of Vision?
1) Ravinder Singh 2) Preeti Shenoy 3) Amish Tripathi
4) Durjoy Dutta 5) Alam Srinivas
108. Prof. Muhammad Yunus, the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006, is the
exponent of which of the following concepts in the filed of banking?
1) Core Banking 2) Micro Credit
3) Retail Banking 4) Real Time Gross Settlement
5) Internet Banking
109. Invisible export means export of
1) Services 2) Prohibited goods
3) Restricted goods 4) Good as per OGL list
5) Other than those given as options
110. The European Union has adopted which of the following as a common currency?
1) Dollar 2) Dinar 3) Yen
4) Euro 5) Peso
111. Banks is India are required to maintain a portion on of their demand and time
liabilities with the Reserve Bank of India. This portion is called
1) Reverse Repo 2) Cash Reserve Ratio
3) Bank Deposit 4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
5) Government Securities
112. Pre-shipment finance is provided by the banks only to
1) Credit Card Holders 2) Students aspiring for further studies
3) Brokers in equity market 4) Village Artisans
113. Banking Ombudsman is appointed by
1) Government of India 2) State Governments
3) RBI 4) ECGC
5) Exim Bank
114. The Holidays for the Banks are declared as per
1) Reserve Bank Act
2) Banking Regulation Act
3) Negotiable Instruments Act
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act
5) Companies Act
115. Interest on Savings deposit nowadays is
1) Fixed by the RBI 2) Fixed by the respective Banks
3) Fixed by the depositors
4) Fixed as per the contract between Bank and the Consumer Court
5) Not paid by he Bank
116. Interest below which a bank is not expected to lend to customers is known as
1) Deposit Rate 2) Base Rate 3) Bank Rate
4) Prime Lending Rate 5) Discount Rate
117. The customers by opening and investing in the Tax Saver Deposit Account
Scheme in a Bank would get benefit under
1) Sales Tax 2) Customs Duty 3) Excise Duty
4) Professional Tax 5) Income Tax
118. In Banking business, when the borrowers avail a Term Loan, initially they are
given a repayment holiday and this is referred as
1) Subsidy 2) Interest waiver 3) Re-phasing
4) Interest concession 5) Moratorium
119. One of the IT companies from India has become the first Indian Company to trade on NYSE Euronext London and Paris markets from February 2013 onwards. Which is this company?
1) Wipro Infotech Ltd.
2) L&T Infotech
3) HCL Technologies Ltd.
4) Infosys Technologies Ltd.
5) Polaris Financial Technology Ltd.
120. BSE (Bombay Stock Exchange), the oldest stock exchange in Asia, has joined
hands with one more international index in February 2013. This association has
resulted in change of name of BSE index. What is the change of name effected?
1) Dow Jones BSE Index 2) NASDAQ BSE Index
3) S&P BSE Index 4) Euronext BSE Index
5) Other than those given as options
121. A non-performing asset is
1) Money at call and short notice 2) An asset at cease to generate income
3) Cash balance in till 4) Cash balance with the RBI
5) Balance with other banks
122. RBI released its guidelines for entry of new banks in the private sector in the
month of Febraury 2013. One of the norms is at least a prescribed percentage of
branches of a new bank should be set up in unbanked rural centres with a population
upto 9,999. What is the percentage of such branches prescribed in the
1) 10% 2) 15% 3) 18%
4) 25% 5) Other than those given as options
123. The Union Budget for 2013-14 proposed by the Finance Minister on 28th
February 2013 announced introduction of a new variety of bonds by the
Government. What is the name of these bonds?
1) Deep Discount Bonds 2) Zero Coupon bonds
3) Bullet Bonds 4) Inflation Indexed Bonds
5) Inflation Variable Bonds
124. Government usually classifies its expenditure in terms of planned and non-planned expenditure. Identify which is the correct definition of planned expenditure.
1) It represent the expenditure of all the State Governments.
2) It represents the total expenditure or the Central Government.
3) It is the expenditure which is spent through centrally sponsored programmes and flagship schemes of the Government.
4) It reprensents the expenditure incurred on Defence.
5) Other than those given as options
125. Which of the following organisations is made specifically responsible for empowering Micro, Small and Medium enterprises in India?
1) NABARD 2) RBI 3) SIDBI
4) ECGC 5) SEBI
126. ‘C’ in CPU denotes
1) Central 2) Common 3) Convenient
4) Computer 5) Circuitry
127. A joystick is primarily used to/for
1) Print Text 2) Computer gaming 3) Enter text
4) Draw pictures 5) Control sound on the screen
128. Which is not a storage device?
1) CD 2) DVD 3) Floppy disk
4) Printer 5) Hard disk
129. Which of the following uses a handheld operating system?
1) A Supercomputer 2) A Personal computer
3) A Laptop 4) A Mainframe 5) A PDA
130. To display the contents of a folder in Windows Explorer you should
1) click on it 2) collapse it 3) name it
4) give it a password 5) rename it
131. The CPU comprises of Control, Memory, and —— units.
1) Micro processor 2) Arithmetic/Logic
3) Output 4) ROM 5) Input
132. ……………. is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.
1) Desktop 2) Network client 3) Network server
4) Network station 5) Network switch
133. A (n) ……………. appearing on a web page opens another document when clicked.
1) Anchor 2) URL 3) Hyperlink
4) reference 5) heading
134. Which of the following refers to the rectangular area for displaying information
and running programmes?
1) Desktop 2) Dialog box 3) Menu
4) Window 5) Icon
135. ……………. is a Windows utility programme that locates and eliminates unnecessary
fragments and rearranges files and unused disk space to optimise operations.
1) Backup 2) Disk Cleanup 3) Disk Defragmenter
4) Restore 5) Disk Restorer
136. Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge?
1) Anomaly 2) Shock 3) Spike
4) Virus 5) Splash
137. The software that is used to create text-based documents are referred to as
1) DBMS 2) Suites 3) Spreadsheets
4) Presentation software 5) Word processors
138. ……………. devices convert human-understandable data and programmes into a
form that the computer can process.
1) Printing 2) Output 3) Solid state
4) Monitor 5) Input
139. Effective Selling Skills depend on the
1) Number of Languages known to the DSA
2) Data on marketing staff
3) Information regarding IT market
4) Knowledge of related markets
5) Ability to talk fast
140. A Direct Selling Agent (DSA) is required to be adept in
1) Surrogate marketing 2) Training skills 3) Communication skills
4) Market Research 5) OTC Marketing
141. Leads can be best sourced from
1) Foreign Customers 2) Yellow paages
3) Dictionary 4) List of vendors 5) Local supply chains
142. A successful marketing person requires one of the following qualities:
1) Empathy 2) Sympathy 3) Insistence
4) Aggressiveness 5) Pride
143. Innovation in marketing is the same as
1) Abbreviation 2) Communication 3) Creativity
4) Aspiration 5) Research work
144. Market segmentation can be resorted to by dividing the target group as per
1) Income levels of customers 2) age of the employees
3) Needs of the salespersons 4) Marketing skills of the employees
5) Size of the organisation
145. Post-sales activities include
1) Sales presentation 2) Customer’s feedback
3) Customer identification 4) Customer’s apathy 5) Product design
146. The ‘USP’ of a product denotes the
1) Usefulness of the product
2) Drawbacks of a Product
3) Main Functions
4) Number of allied products available
5) High selling features of a product
147. The competitive position of a company can be improved by
1) Increasing the selling price 2) Reducing the margin
3) Ignoring competitors 4) Increasing the cost price
5) Understanding and fulfilling customers’ needs
148. Value-added services means
1) Low-cost products 2) High-cost products 3) At-par services
4) Additional services for the same cost 5) Giving discounts
149. The target market for Debit Cards is
1) All existing account-holders 2) All agriculturists
3) All DSAs 4) All vendors
5) All Outsourced agents
150. A good Brand can be built up by way of
1) Customer Grievances 2) Break-down of IT support
3) Old age 4) Large number of products
5) Consistent offering of good services
Test-IV: English Language
Directions (Q. 151-160): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else
to go to achieve business growth. The viability of FI Business is under Question,
because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make investments, they
haven’t seen commensurate returns. In markets like India, most programmes are
focussed on customer on boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult
to afford, involving issuance of smart cards to the customers. However, largescale
customer acquisition hasn’t translated into large-scale business, with many
accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the bank’s investment.
For the same reason. Business Correspondent Agents, who constitute the primary
channel for financial inclusion, are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job.
One major reason for this state of events is that the customer on-boarding process is
often delayed after the submission of documents (required to validate the details of
the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. By this
time initial enthusiasm of applicants fades away. Moreover, the delivery partners don’t
have the knowledge and skill to propose anything other than the most basic financial
products to the customer and hence do not serve their banks’ goal to expanding the
offering in unbanked markets.
Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular
impoverished, undifferentiated mass and it is important to navigate its diversity to
identify the right target customers for various programmes. Rural markets do have
their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are
inconvenient to access or have low perceived value. At the same time, urban markets,
despite a high branch density, have multitude of low wage earners outside the financial
net. Moreover, the branch timings of banks rarely coincide with the off-work
horus of the labour class.
Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing
is a tool, but banks also need to be innovative in right-sizing their proposition to
convince customers that they can derive big value even from small amounts. One way
‘of’ doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle
enabler, a convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a variety of
purchases. Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this value proposition they
must sustain their interest by introducing a simple and intuitive user application,
ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, and adopting a banking
mechanism which is not only secure but also reassuring to the customer. Technology
is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all
others. The choice of technology is therefore a crucial decision, which could make or
mar the agenda. Of the various selection criteria, cost is perhaps the most important.
This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, but rather choosing that
solution which by scaling transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating
cost. An optimal mix of these strategies would no doubt offer an innovative means of
expansion in the unbanked market.
151. Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?
1) People from rural areas have high perceived value of banking services.
2) Cost is not a valid Criterion for technological package selection for financial inclusion initiatives.
3) The inclusion segment is a singular impoverieshed, undifferentiated mass.
4) The branch timings of banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class in urban markets.
5) All the given statements are true.
152. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons do the delivery
partners fail to serve their bank’s goal to expand in the unbanked markets?
(A) They do not have adequate client base to sell their financial products.
(B) They do not have adequate knowledge and skills to explain anything beyond basic financial products to the customers.
(C) They do not have the skills to operate advanced technological aids that are
a prerequisite to tap the unbanked market.
1) Only (B) 2) Only (C) 3) All (A), (B) & (C)
4) Only (A) 5) Both (B) and (C)
153. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons is the viability of
financial inclusion under question?
1) Banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cust cost) while making a choice of technology to be used.
2) The Business Correspondent Agents are highly demotiviated to pursue their activity as a full-time job.
3) The investments made by banks and their delivery partners are not yielding equal amounts of returns.
4) Banks do not have adequate number of delivery partners required to tap the unbanked market.
5) Banks do not have adequate manpower to explore the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby identify the right target customers for various programmes.
154. In the passage, the author has specified which of the following characteristics of
the customer on-boarding process?
1) It involves collection of documents from the applicants in order to validate their details.
2) It involves issuance of smart cards to the customers.
3) It suffers from latency as it takes a long time after submission of documents by the customer.
4) It is an expensive process which people find difficult to afford.
5) All of the given characteristics have been specified
155. What did the author try to highlight in the passage?
(A) The ailing condition of financial inclusion business at present
(B) Strategies that may help banks expand in the unbanked market
(C) Role of government in modifying the existing financial-inclusion policies
1) Both (A) and (B) 2) All (A), (B) and (C) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) 5) Only (B)
156. According to the passage, which of the following ways may help banks sustain
the interest of their customers after hooking them?
(A) Adoption of a banking mechanism which is not only secure but reassuring to the customers
(B) Increasing the number of delivery partners in rural market.
(C) Introduction of a simple and intuitive user application
1) Only (A) 2) Only (C) 3) Only (B)
4) All (A), (B) and (C) (5) Both (A) and (C)
Directions (Q. 157-158): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
1) Impoverished 2) Handful 3) Acknowledged
4) Plenty 5) Solitued
1) Quintessential 2) Popular 3) Omnipresent
4) Simplified 5) Abnormal
Directions (Q. 159-160) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning
to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
1) Emaciated 2) Pertinent 3) Cornered
4) Rejected 5) Active
1) Perturbed 2) Popularised 3) Expedited
4) Stabilised 5) Repressed
Directions (Q. 161-170): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you
locate them while answering some of the questions.
The evolution of Bring your Own Device (BYOD) trend has been as profound
as it has been rapid. It represents the more visible sign that the boundaries between
personal life and work life are blurring. The 9 am – 5 pm model of working solely from
office has become archaic and increasingly people are working extended hours from
a range of locations. At the very heart of this evolution is the ability to access enterprise
networks from anywhere and anytime. The concept of cloud computing serves
effectively to extend the office out of office. The much heralded benefit of BYOD is
greater productivity. However, recent research has suggested that this is the greatest
myth of BYOD and the reality is that BYOD in practice poses new challenges that
may outweigh the benefits. A worldwide survey commissioned by Fortinet chose to
look at attitudes towards BYOD and security from the user’s point of view instead of
the IT Managers’. Specifically the survey was conducted in 15 territories on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties because they represent the fist generation
to enter the workplace with an expectation of own device use. Moreover, they also
represent tomorrow’s influencers and decision makers. The survey findings reveal that
for financial organisations, the decision to embrace BYOD is extremely dangerous.
Larger organisations will have mature IT strategies and policies in place. But what
about smaller financial business? They might not have such well developed strategies
to protect confidential data.
Crucially, within younger employee group, 55% of the people share an expectation
that they should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace or for
work purposes. With this expectation comes the very real risk that employees may
consider contravening company policy banning the use of own devices. The threats
posed by this level of subversion cannot be overstated. The survey casts doubt on the
idea of BYOD leading to greater productivity by revealing the real reason people want
to use their own devices. Only 26% of people in this age group cite efficiency as the
reason they want to use their own devices, while 63% admit that the main reason is so
they have access to their favourite applications. But with personal applications so
close to hand the risks to the business must surely include distraction and time wasting.
To support this assumption 46% of people poled acknowledged time wasting as
the greatest threat to the organisation, while 42% citing greater exposure to theft or
loss of confidential data. Clearly, from a user perspective there is great deal of contradiction
surroundnig BYOD and there exists an undercurrent of selfishness where
users expect to use their own devices, but mostly for personal interest. They recognise
the risks to the organisation but are adamant that those risks are worth taking.
161. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons did Fortinet conduct
the survey on a group of graduate employees in their early twenties?
(A) As this group represents the future decision makers.
(B) As this group represents the first generation who entered the workforce with a better understanding of sophisticated gadgets.
(C) As this group represents the first generation to enter the workplace expecting
that they can use their own devices for work purpose.
1) All (A), (B) and (c) 2) Only (C) 3) Both (A) and (C)
4) Only (A) 5) Only (B)
162. Which of the following is not true BYOD?
1) BYOD enables employees to access enterprise network from anywhere and anytime.
2) Due to evolution of BYOD trend the 9 am- 5 pm model of working solely
from office has become outdated.
3) Recent research has confirmed that BYOD boosts organisational productivity.
4) The concept of cloud computing facilitates the BYOD trend.
5) All the given facts are true
163. According to the passage, why would the decision to embrace BYOD prove
dangerous to smaller financial businesses?
1) Their employers have poor knowledge about their devices, which in turn
poses a threat the confidential data of the organisation.
2) Their employees are more vulnerable to misplacement of devices.
3) They may lack mature IT strategies and policies required to protect confidential data.
4) They cannot afford to deal with damage liability issues of employee-owned devices.
5) Their employees have a tendency to change jobs frequently.
164. According to the passage, the expectation of Younger employees that they
should be allowed to use their own devices in the workplace, entails which of
the following risks?
A) Younger employees may deliberately transfer confidential data of their
companies to rivals if they are not allowed to use their own devices for work
B) Younger employees may strongly feel like leaving the company if it prevents
usage of their own device and join some other company that does not have
such stringent policies.
C) Younger employees may consider flouting company policy prohibiting usage
of their own devices in the workplace or for work purposes.
1) Only (C) 2) Only (B) 3) Both (A), (C)
4) only (A) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
165. According to the findings of the survey conducted by Fortinet, why do majority
of employees prefer using their own devices for work purpose?
1) As they often find that the devices provided by the company lack quality.
2) As they have access to their favourite applications while working
3) As majority of them believe that output doubles when they use their own devices for work purpose
4) As handling data from their own devices reinforces their sence of responsibility
5) As it helps them create a brand of their own
166. What is/are the author’s main objective(s) in writing the passage?
(A) To break the myth that BYOD promotes employee efficiency and organisational productivity
(B) To suggest ways to control subversion across levels of corporate chain of
(C) To throw light upon the fact that employees, even after knowing the risks
involved, prefer to use their own devices for work purpose, mostly for personal benefits
1) Both (A) and (C) 2) All (A), (B) and (C) 3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) 5) Only (B)
Directions (Q. 167-168): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to
the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
1) Suspected 2) Publicised 3) Dragged
4) Objective 5) Benefit
1) Control 2) Venture 3) Perish
4) Determine 5) Surpass
Directions (Q. 169-170): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning
to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
1) Contradict 2) Disobey 3) Curtail
4) Reject 5) Obscure
1) Compliance 2) Sanity 3) Popularity
4) Destabilisation 5) Clarity
Directions (Q. 171-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No
error’, mark 5)
171. 1) There cannot be any situation where/ 2) somebody makes money in an asset / 3) located in India and does not pay tax/ 4) either to India or to the country of
his origin. / 5) No error
172. 1) India has entered a downward spiral / 2) Where the organised, productive /
3) and law abide sectors are subject to / 4) savage amounts of multiple taxes. /
5) No error
173. 1) The bank may have followed / 2) an aggressive monetary tightening policy /
3) but its stated aim of / 4) curbing inflation have not been achieved. / 5)No error
174. 1) Equal Opportunities for advancement / 2) across the length and breadth /
3) of an organisation will / 4) keep many problems away. / 5) No error
175. 1) A customised data science degree / 2) is yet to become / 3) a standard programme
/ 4) to India’s Premier educational institutes. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 176-180): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating
that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank
that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
176. When you want to digitalise a city ………. with millions, you don’t bet …………… the odds.
1) proceeding, into 2) teeming, against
3) undergoing, adhere 4) dangling, for 5. falling, above
177. The numbers …………. by the legitimate online music service providers indicate
that a growing number of users are ……… to buy music.
1) morphed, ignoring 2) labelled, thriving 3) figured, fanatic
4) painted, interested 5) touted, willing
178. If India is ……….. on protecting its resources, international business appears equally ………….. to safeguard its profit.
1) dreaded, fragile 2) stubborn, weak 3) bent, determined
4) approaching, settled 5) obsessed, prepared
179. Brands ………. decision-simplicity strategies make full use of available information
to ……… where consumers are on the path of decision making and direct
them to the best market offers.
1) diluting, divulge 2) tempting, maintain
3) imputing, overdrive 4) pursuing, assess 5) employing, trust
180. Lack of financing options, ……….. with HR and technological ……….. make
small and medium enterprises sector the most vulnerable component of our
1) except, loophole 2) coupled, challenges
3) armed, benefits 4) registered, strategies 5) strengthened, facilities
Directions (Q. 181-185): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D),
(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then
answer the questions given below.
(A) The group desired to enhance the learning experience in schools with an
interactive digital medium that could be used within and outside the
(B) Then the teacher can act on the downloaded data rather than collect it from
each and every student and thereby save his time and effort.
(C) Edutor, decided the group of engineers, all alumni of the Indian Institute of
Technology, when they founded Edutor Technologies in August 2009.
(D) They can even take tests and submit them digitally using the same tablets
and the teachers in turn can download, the tests using the company’s cloud services.
(E) With this desire they created a solution that digitises school text books and
other learning material so that students no longer need to carry as many
books to school and back as before, but can access their study material on
their touch-screen tablets.
(F) Amechanic works on motors and an accountant has his computer. Likewise,
if a student has to work on a machine of device, what should it be called?
181. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement?
1) F 2) D 3) A
4) C 5) E
182. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) D
4) E 5) F
183. Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) E
4) B 5) D
184. Which of the following sentences should be the FOURTH after rearrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) E
4) B 5) C
185. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?
1) A 2) D 3) C
4) E 5) F
Directions (Q. 186-195): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case.
There is a considerable amount of research about the factors that make a company
innovate. So is it possible to create an environment (186) to innovation? This is
a particularly pertinent (187) for India today. Massive problems in health, education
etc (188) be solved using a conventional Approach but (189) creative and innovative
solutions that can ensure radical change and (190). There are several factors in India’s
(191). Few countries have the rich diversity that India or its large, young population
(192). While these (193) innovation policy interventions certain additional steps are
also required. These include (194) investment in research and development by (195)
the government and the private sector, easy transfer of technolgy from the academic
world etc. To fulfil its promise of being prosperious and to be at the forefront, India
must be innovative.
186. 1) stimuli 2) conducive 3) incentive
4) facilitated 5) impetus
187. 1) objective 2) controversy 3) doubt
4) question 5) inference
188. 1) cannot 2) possibly 3) should
4) never 5) must
189. 1) necesary 2) apply 3) need
4) consider 5) requires
190. 1) quantity 2) advantages 3) increase
4) chaos 5) growth
191. 1) challenges 2) praises 3) favour
4) leverage 5) esteem
192. 1) blessed 2) enjoys 3) endows
4) prevails 5) occurs
193. 1) aid 2) jeopardise 3) promotes
4) endure 5) cater
194. 1) acute 2) utilising 3) restricting
4) inspiring 5) increased
195. 1) both 2) besides 3) combining
4) participating 5) also
Directions (Q. 196-200): In each of the following questions four words are given,
of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the
two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate
the number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval
in your answer sheet.
196. (A) consent (B) nascent (C) emerging (D) Insecure
1) A −C 2) B − D 3) B − C
4) A − D 5) A − B
197. (A) elated (B) eccentric (C) explicit (D) abnormal
1) A −B 2) B −D 3) A − C
4) A −D 5) D − C
198. (A) abundance (B) incomparable (C) Projection (D) plethora
1) A −C 2) A −B 3) C − D
4) B −D 5) A − D
199. (A) purposefully (B) inaccurately (C) inadvertently (D) unchangeably
1) A −C 2) A −B 3) B − C
4) B −D 5) A − D
200. (A) germane (B) generate (C) reliable (D) irrelevant
1) B −D 2) B −C 3) A − B
4) C −D 5) A − D
SBI PO 2013 Previous Year Question Paper:Answers
1-2; 2-4; 3-4; 4-5; 5-3; 6-3; 7-1; 8-1; 9-3; 10-2; 11-5; 12-5; 13-1; 14-2; 15-4; 16-3;
17-4; 18-3; 19-1; 20-2; 21-1; 22-2; 23-2; 24-4; 25-4;26-2; 27-4; 28-3; 29-2; 30-1; 31-
1; 32-4; 33-5; 34-2; 35-5; 36-5; 37-3; 38-2; 39-5; 40-4; 41-5; 42-1; 43-3; 44-4; 45-1;
46-4; 47-3; 48-2; 49-2; 50-3; 51-2; 52-4; 53-3; 54-1; 55-3; 56-2; 57-5; 58-1; 59-4;
60-5; 61-2; 62-3; 63-2; 64-4; 65-5; 66-2; 67-4; 68-3; 69-1; 70-5; 71-3; 72-5; 73-2;
74-4; 75-1; 76-3; 77-3; 78-1; 79-4; 80-1; 81-3; 82-5; 83-1; 84-2; 85-3; 86-5; 87-1;
88-3; 89-5; 90-2; 91-2; 92-1; 93-4; 94-5; 95-2; 96-3; 97-4; 98-3; 99-5; 100-2; 101-1;
102-5; 103-4; 104-1; 105-1; 106-1; 107-5; 108-2; 109-1; 110-4; 111-2; 112-5; 113-3;
114-3; 115-2; 116-2; 117-5; 118-5; 119-4; 120-3; 121-2; 122-4; 123-4; 124-3; 125-3;
126-1; 127-2; 128-4; 129-5; 130-1; 131-2; 132-3; 133-3; 134-4; 135-3; 136-3; 137-5;
138-5; 139-4; 140-3; 141-5; 142-1; 143-3; 144-1; 145-1; 145-2; 146-5; 147-5; 148-4;
149-1; 150-5; 151-4; 152-1; 153-3; 154-5; 155-1; 156-5; 157-4; 158-3; 159-5; 160-3;
161-3; 162-3; 163-3; 164-1; 165-2; 166-1; 167-2; 168-5; 169-4; 170-1; 171-2 172-3;
173-4; 174-5; 175-4; 176-2; 177-5; 178-3; 179-4; 180-2; 181-1; 182-1; 183-4; 184-3;
185-2; 186-2; 187-4; 188-1; 189-3; 190-5; 191-3; 192-2; 193-1; 194-5; 195-1; 196-3;
197-2; 198-5; 199-1; 200-5.